Comments
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even if infinity was a kinda number, i would still say that this wouldnt work because 1/Infinity * Infinity would still result in 0 i think -
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this is why this is a followup post to my post about a "proof 1 = 0, but it's a fallacy"
i completely forgot about it but PkmnQ reminded me a few days ago
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i'm well aware it doesn't work